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UPSC CMS General Medicine - Neurology (Neurosciences)
Attempt UPSC CMS General Medicine - Neurology (Neurosciences) under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.
Duration
10 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+4.00 / -1.00
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.
📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS General Medicine - Neurology (Neurosciences)
Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.
Question 1
A 55-year-old male presents with sudden onset excruciating headache, described as 'the worst headache of my life', associated with nausea, vomiting, and nuchal rigidity. On examination, he is drowsy but rousable, with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 13. Fundoscopic examination reveals subhyaloid hemorrhages. A CT scan of the brain shows diffuse hyperdensity in the basal cisterns. Which of the following statements regarding his management is INCORRECT?
A. Nimodipine should be administered promptly to prevent cerebral vasospasm.
B. Early neurosurgical consultation for aneurysm clipping or coiling is crucial.
C. Lumbar puncture is contraindicated if a CT scan confirms subarachnoid hemorrhage.
D. Strict blood pressure control is essential, aiming for a mean arterial pressure below 90 mmHg.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient's presentation is classic for a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker specifically used to prevent cerebral vasospasm, a common complication of SAH, making option 1 correct. Early neurosurgical interventio...
Question 2
A 70-year-old female with a history of hypertension and dyslipidemia presents with gradually progressive cognitive decline over 3 years, characterized by memory loss, executive dysfunction, and visuospatial deficits. She occasionally experiences visual hallucinations and fluctuating attention. Her family reports increased daytime sleepiness and occasional vivid dreams. On examination, she has a mild parkinsonian gait and subtle resting tremor. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT regarding her condition?
1. Cholinesterase inhibitors are often beneficial in improving cognitive symptoms.
2. Levodopa is the first-line treatment for motor symptoms, but should be used cautiously.
3. Neuroleptic sensitivity is a significant concern, and atypical antipsychotics should be avoided.
4. Alpha-synucleinopathy is the underlying neuropathological hallmark.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This clinical vignette describes Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB), characterized by progressive cognitive decline, fluctuating cognition, recurrent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous parkinsonism. Statement 1 is correct: Cholinesterase inhibitors...
Question 3
A 30-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of monocular vision loss (amaurosis fugax), transient numbness and weakness in one arm, and episodes of diplopia, occurring over several months and resolving spontaneously. Over the past 48 hours, she developed acute-onset right-sided weakness and gait ataxia. MRI of the brain reveals multiple T2 hyperintense lesions in the periventricular white matter, corpus callosum, and cerebellum, some with gadolinium enhancement. A lumbar puncture shows oligoclonal bands in the cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial disease-modifying therapy?
A. Azathioprine
B. Natalizumab
C. Interferon beta-1a
D. Cyclophosphamide
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This patient's presentation is highly suggestive of Relapsing-Remitting Multiple Sclerosis (RRMS) given the disseminated lesions in space and time, typical symptoms, and CSF findings. Interferon beta-1a is a well-established first-line disease-modify...
Question 4
Which of the following eponymous signs is associated with a unilateral lesion of the lower motor neuron leading to ipsilateral tongue deviation on protrusion and atrophy, along with contralateral hemiplegia and hemisensory loss?
A. Weber's Syndrome
B. Wallenberg Syndrome
C. Benedikt Syndrome
D. Millard-Gubler Syndrome
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Weber's Syndrome is caused by a lesion in the ventral midbrain involving the oculomotor nerve (CN III) and the cerebral peduncle. This results in ipsilateral CN III palsy (oculomotor nerve paralysis causing ptosis, dilated pupil, and eye deviated dow...
Question 5
A 68-year-old male with a 15-year history of Parkinson's disease, well-controlled on levodopa/carbidopa, presents with increasing dyskinesias, especially during peak-dose periods. He also experiences unpredictable 'off' periods and significant motor fluctuations. Which of the following therapeutic strategies would be LEAST appropriate as an initial adjustment to his current regimen?
A. Adding a COMT inhibitor (e.g., entacapone) to prolong the effect of levodopa.
B. Initiating a dopamine agonist (e.g., pramipexole) to reduce levodopa dosage.
C. Switching to a dopamine agonist monotherapy to manage dyskinesias.
D. Considering deep brain stimulation (DBS) as an immediate next step.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This patient is experiencing typical motor complications of long-term levodopa therapy in Parkinson's disease, namely dyskinesias and motor fluctuations ('wearing off'). Strategies to manage these often involve optimizing levodopa dosing (more freque...