Full Length Mock Test
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UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Benign & Malignant Gynecological Neoplasms
Attempt UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Benign & Malignant Gynecological Neoplasms under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.
Duration
15 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+4.00 / -1.00
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.
📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Benign & Malignant Gynecological Neoplasms
Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.
Question 1
A 35-year-old G2P1 woman presents with irregular per vaginal bleeding for 3 months, dyspareunia, and post-coital spotting. Colposcopy reveals an exophytic growth on the cervix. Biopsy confirms squamous cell carcinoma. Subsequent staging workup shows parametrial involvement but no involvement of the lower third of the vagina or pelvic sidewall. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT regarding her management and prognosis?
1. Radical hysterectomy is the primary treatment for this stage.
2. Concurrent chemoradiation is the preferred treatment approach.
3. Five-year survival rates for this stage are typically around 60-70%.
4. Pelvic exenteration would be indicated if there was involvement of the bladder or rectum.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient presents with Stage IIB cervical cancer (parametrial involvement but no involvement of the lower third of the vagina or pelvic sidewall). For Stage IIB cervical cancer, concurrent chemoradiation is the preferred primary treatment, not rad...
Question 2
A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents with primary infertility for 3 years. Her menstrual cycles are irregular (oligomenorrhea), and she complains of increasing hirsutism and acne. Basal hormonal profile reveals elevated testosterone, elevated LH:FSH ratio, and normal prolactin and TSH. Pelvic ultrasound shows bilaterally enlarged ovaries with multiple small peripheral follicles. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding her condition?
A. She has an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma.
B. Weight reduction is a cornerstone of management, especially if she is overweight or obese.
C. Clomiphene citrate is the first-line pharmacotherapy for ovulation induction if pregnancy is desired.
D. She is at a lower risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to metabolic adaptations.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient's presentation is classic for Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS). Women with PCOS are at a significantly increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as impaired glucose tolerance, due to insulin resistance, which is a k...
Question 3
A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of hypertension and obesity presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Endometrial biopsy reveals atypical endometrial hyperplasia with architectural complexity. Hysteroscopy confirms the biopsy findings and visualizes a thickened, irregular endometrium. Her Body Mass Index (BMI) is 32 kg/m². Which of the following interventions is CONTRADICTED as initial treatment?
A. High-dose oral progestins (e.g., megestrol acetate)
B. Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
C. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)
D. Expectant management with regular endometrial surveillance
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Atypical endometrial hyperplasia, especially with architectural complexity, carries a significant risk of progression to or coexisting with endometrial carcinoma (up to 25-50% in some series). Given the patient's postmenopausal status and risk factor...
Question 4
The 'Meigs syndrome' is a classical association recognized in oncology. Which of the following accurately describes the triad of Meigs syndrome?
A. Ovarian fibroma, ascites, and pleural effusion
B. Ovarian endometrioma, ascites, and anemia
C. Ovarian serous cystadenoma, pleural effusion, and hyperthyroidism
D. Ovarian mucinous cystadenoma, ascites, and elevated CA-125
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Meigs syndrome is a rare but classic triad characterized by an ovarian fibroma (or fibroma-like tumor), ascites, and hydrothorax (pleural effusion). The ascites and pleural effusion resolve after surgical removal of the tumor. It is important to reco...
Question 5
A 45-year-old G3P3 woman presents with a feeling of 'something coming down' in her vagina, accompanied by difficulty emptying her bowels. On examination, a bulge is noted in the posterior vaginal wall, which reduces on lying down. The cervix is in a normal position. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cystocele
B. Uterine prolapse
C. Rectocele
D. Enterocele
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient's symptoms of a feeling of 'something coming down' and difficulty emptying her bowels, coupled with a bulge in the posterior vaginal wall, are highly suggestive of a rectocele. A rectocele occurs when the rectum bulges into the posterior...