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UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Normal Labor, Malpresentations & Operative Obstetrics
Attempt UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Normal Labor, Malpresentations & Operative Obstetrics under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.
Duration
15 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+4.00 / -1.00
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.
📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Normal Labor, Malpresentations & Operative Obstetrics
Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.
Question 1
A 28-year-old primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation presents to the labor ward with regular uterine contractions. Vaginal examination reveals a cervical dilation of 3 cm, effacement of 50%, and fetal head at -2 station. The membranes are intact. Which of the following statements about the physiology of normal labor is/are CORRECT?
1. Oxytocin receptors in the uterus increase significantly during late pregnancy.
2. Prostaglandins play a crucial role in cervical ripening and uterine contractions.
3. Estrogen levels decrease, and progesterone levels increase in the weeks leading up to labor.
4. Fetal cortisol surge contributes to the initiation of labor.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Statement 1 is correct: The concentration of oxytocin receptors in the myometrium increases dramatically towards the end of pregnancy, making the uterus more sensitive to oxytocin. Statement 2 is correct: Prostaglandins (PGE2, PGF2alpha) are essentia...
Question 2
Which of the following interventions is CONTRADICTED as an initial management step for a nulliparous woman presenting with a persistent occiput posterior position at full cervical dilation with arrest of descent, assuming no signs of fetal distress?
A. Spontaneous vaginal delivery with adequate maternal pushing efforts
B. Manual rotation of the fetal head
C. Instrumental delivery (forceps or vacuum) with rotation
D. Immediate preparation for an emergency lower segment Cesarean section
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
In a persistent occiput posterior position with arrest of descent at full dilation, the initial approach is not immediate Cesarean section. The options are to allow for further maternal pushing efforts (as some may rotate spontaneously or deliver OP)...
Question 3
A 32-year-old G2P1 woman at 38 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. On examination, the uterus is tender, hypertonic, and fetal heart sounds are absent. A Kleihauer-Betke test is positive. This clinical picture most strongly suggests a diagnosis of:
A. Placenta previa
B. Uterine rupture
C. Abruptio placentae
D. Vasa previa
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The clinical presentation of sudden onset severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, a tender and hypertonic uterus, and absent fetal heart sounds is classic for abruptio placentae (placental abruption). The positive Kleihauer-Betke test indicates feta...
Question 4
Which of the following statements regarding the active management of the third stage of labor is INCORRECT?
A. It involves the administration of a uterotonic agent after the delivery of the anterior shoulder.
B. Controlled cord traction is performed after signs of placental separation are observed.
C. Uterine massage is initiated immediately after placental expulsion.
D. It aims to reduce the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The active management of the third stage of labor involves the administration of a uterotonic agent (e.g., oxytocin) within one minute of the birth of the baby (usually after the delivery of the anterior shoulder or by the time of the birth of the ba...
Question 5
A 24-year-old nulliparous woman is in active labor. Her partograph shows a cervical dilation of 6 cm at 10 AM, and at 1 PM, the cervical dilation is still 6 cm. The fetal head descent has also remained unchanged. The uterine contractions are every 5 minutes, lasting 40 seconds, and are moderate in intensity. This pattern most likely indicates:
A. Protracted active phase
B. Secondary arrest of dilation
C. Prolonged latent phase
D. Precipitate labor
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Secondary arrest of dilation is defined as no cervical change for 2 hours or more during the active phase of labor. In this case, the woman has been at 6 cm dilation for 3 hours (from 10 AM to 1 PM) during the active phase (6 cm is considered active...