Full Length Mock Test
All India Percentile Rank
UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Physiology of Menstruation & Gynecological Endocrinology
Attempt UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Physiology of Menstruation & Gynecological Endocrinology under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.
Duration
15 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+4.00 / -1.00
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.
📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Physiology of Menstruation & Gynecological Endocrinology
Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.
Question 1
A 32-year-old G1P0 woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a rigid, tender uterus. Fetal heart tracing shows late decelerations and decreased variability. Which of the following interventions is CONTRADICTED as the initial management strategy?
A. Administration of tocolytics to halt contractions.
B. Initiation of intravenous fluid resuscitation.
C. Preparation for immediate Caesarean section.
D. Placement of two large-bore intravenous catheters.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The clinical presentation is highly suggestive of placental abruption, a severe obstetric emergency. Tocolytics are contraindicated in cases of placental abruption as they can worsen maternal hemorrhage and delay definitive management (delivery). The...
Question 2
Regarding the physiological changes during puberty in females, consider the following statements:
1. Adrenarche is characterized by increased adrenal androgen production, leading to pubic and axillary hair development.
2. Thelarche is typically the first clinical sign of puberty, driven primarily by estrogen.
3. Gonadarche involves the activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, leading to pulsatile GnRH secretion.
4. Menarche is exclusively dependent on reaching a critical body weight and is independent of skeletal maturity.
Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Adrenarche is indeed the increase in adrenal androgen production, leading to pubic and axillary hair. Thelarche (breast budding) is usually the first sign of puberty and is estrogen-driven. Gonadarche refers to the...
Question 3
A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents with a 6-month history of secondary amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and visual field defects. Her prolactin level is significantly elevated (250 ng/mL). She desires fertility. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
A. Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy
B. Bromocriptine therapy
C. External beam radiation therapy
D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of a prolactinoma (amenorrhea, galactorrhea, visual field defects from mass effect, and significantly elevated prolactin). For microprolactinomas and even many macroprolactinomas, dopamine agonist...
Question 4
A 35-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea. Ultrasound reveals multiple uterine fibroids, the largest being 7 cm, distorting the uterine cavity. She desires future fertility. What is the most appropriate definitive management for her symptoms while preserving fertility?
A. Total abdominal hysterectomy
B. Uterine artery embolization (UAE)
C. Abdominal myomectomy
D. GnRH agonist therapy for 6 months
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Given the patient's desire for future fertility and the presence of symptomatic fibroids distorting the uterine cavity, abdominal myomectomy is the most appropriate definitive management. Myomectomy allows for the removal of the fibroids while preser...
Question 5
Which of the following is the most sensitive and specific biochemical marker for early detection of ovarian cancer, particularly epithelial ovarian cancer?
A. CA-125
B. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
CA-125 (Cancer Antigen 125) is the most widely used and best-studied biochemical marker for epithelial ovarian cancer, especially in postmenopausal women with a pelvic mass, and for monitoring treatment response and recurrence. While its sensitivity...