Full Length Mock Test
All India Percentile Rank
UPSC CMS PSM - National Health Programmes & Initiatives
Attempt UPSC CMS PSM - National Health Programmes & Initiatives under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.
Duration
15 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+4.00 / -1.00
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.
📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS PSM - National Health Programmes & Initiatives
Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.
Question 1
A 45-year-old male presents to a rural health center with chronic cough, low-grade fever, and significant weight loss for the past three months. His sputum smear is positive for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). As per the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) guidelines, which of the following best describes the current standard treatment regimen for a newly diagnosed drug-sensitive pulmonary TB patient in India?
A. 2 months of Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol (HRZE) followed by 4 months of HR.
B. 3 months of Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol (HRZE) followed by 6 months of HR.
C. 6 months of daily Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol (HRZE).
D. 9 months of Isoniazid and Rifampicin with Pyrazinamide for the initial 2 months.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The current standard treatment regimen for a newly diagnosed drug-sensitive pulmonary TB patient under NTEP (formerly RNTCP) in India is 2 months of intensive phase with Isoniazid (H), Rifampicin (R), Pyrazinamide (Z), Ethambutol (E) followed by 4 mo...
Question 2
A 28-year-old primigravida attends an antenatal check-up at 30 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her husband is Rh-positive. Her indirect Coombs test is negative. According to national guidelines for maternal health, when is the routine administration of anti-D immunoglobulin recommended for preventing Rh isoimmunization in this scenario?
A. Immediately after delivery, if the baby is Rh-positive.
B. At 28 weeks of gestation and again within 72 hours of delivery if the baby is Rh-positive.
C. Only after delivery, if the baby shows signs of Rh hemolytic disease.
D. At 36 weeks of gestation, irrespective of the baby's Rh status.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
For Rh-negative mothers with an Rh-positive partner and a negative indirect Coombs test, routine anti-D immunoglobulin administration is recommended at 28 weeks of gestation to prevent sensitization during pregnancy. A second dose is administered wit...
Question 3
A public health physician is tasked with evaluating the effectiveness of a new measles-rubella (MR) vaccination campaign in a district. The district has a target population of 100,000 children aged 9 months to 15 years. Post-campaign, a survey reveals that 85,000 children received at least one dose of the MR vaccine. What is the administrative coverage rate of the MR vaccine in this district?
A. 75%
B. 85%
C. 90%
D. 95%
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Administrative coverage rate is calculated as (Number of doses administered / Target population) * 100. In this case, (85,000 / 100,000) * 100 = 85%. This metric is crucial for evaluating the reach of vaccination programs under the National Immunizat...
Question 4
During a communicable disease outbreak investigation, a rapid diagnostic test has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 80%. In a population where the true prevalence of the disease is estimated to be 10%, what is the positive predictive value (PPV) of this test?
A. 30%
B. 33.3%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
To calculate PPV, we use Bayes' theorem or a 2x2 table. For a population of 1000 people: True Positives (TP) = Prevalence * Sensitivity = 1000 * 0.10 * 0.90 = 90. False Positives (FP) = (1 - Prevalence) * (1 - Specificity) = 1000 * 0.90 * 0.20 = 180....
Question 5
A 60-year-old male presents with sudden onset weakness of the right side of his body and difficulty speaking. He has a history of uncontrolled hypertension and dyslipidemia. As part of the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS), which of the following is the MOST effective primary prevention strategy at the community level to reduce the incidence of such events?
A. Regular screening camps for early detection of stroke symptoms.
B. Promoting universal access to thrombolytic therapy in rural areas.
C. Community-based awareness campaigns on healthy diet, regular physical activity, and tobacco cessation.
D. Distributing free anti-hypertensive and statin medications to all individuals over 50 years.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Primary prevention aims to prevent disease onset. Community-based awareness campaigns on lifestyle modifications (healthy diet, physical activity, tobacco cessation) directly address the major modifiable risk factors for hypertension, dyslipidemia, a...