Full Length Mock Test
All India Percentile Rank
UPSC CMS Surgery - Breast Surgery
Attempt UPSC CMS Surgery - Breast Surgery under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.
Duration
10 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+4.00 / -1.00
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.
📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS Surgery - Breast Surgery
Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.
Question 1
A 45-year-old female presents with a 2 cm mobile, non-tender lump in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast, noticed one month ago. She has no family history of breast cancer. Physical examination confirms the lump. Mammography reveals a well-defined, oval-shaped mass with smooth margins, classified as BI-RADS 3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?
A. Immediate excisional biopsy
B. Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC)
C. Core Needle Biopsy (CNB)
D. Clinical follow-up with repeat mammography in 6 months
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient's presentation with a mobile, non-tender lump and mammography findings of a well-defined, oval mass with smooth margins (BI-RADS 3) are highly suggestive of a benign lesion, such as a fibroadenoma. BI-RADS 3 indicates a 'probably benign'...
Question 2
A 62-year-old female presents with a 3 cm hard, irregular mass in her right breast, with associated skin dimpling and nipple retraction. There is also palpable right axillary lymphadenopathy. Biopsy confirms invasive ductal carcinoma. Staging investigations reveal no distant metastases. She is planned for surgical management. Considering her age and clinical presentation, what is the most appropriate surgical approach?
A. Lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy
B. Modified Radical Mastectomy (MRM)
C. Simple mastectomy without axillary dissection
D. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by lumpectomy
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient presents with a 3 cm hard, irregular mass, skin dimpling, nipple retraction, and palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, all highly suggestive of advanced local disease. Biopsy confirmed invasive ductal carcinoma. In the absence of distant met...
Question 3
A 30-year-old female, 3 weeks postpartum, presents with a painful, erythematous, and swollen area in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. She has a fever of 102°F (38.9°C) and chills. On examination, a tender, fluctuant mass is noted. What is the most appropriate initial management step?
A. Oral antibiotics and continued breastfeeding
B. Incision and drainage of the abscess
C. Cessation of breastfeeding and ice packs
D. Ultrasound-guided aspiration of the abscess
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This patient presents with classic signs and symptoms of a lactational breast abscess: postpartum period, painful, erythematous, swollen breast with fever, chills, and a tender, fluctuant mass. While oral antibiotics are crucial for mastitis, a fluct...
Question 4
A 55-year-old male presents with a firm, painless subareolar mass in his left breast that has been growing for 3 months. He has no nipple discharge or axillary lymphadenopathy. His past medical history is significant for chronic liver disease. Physical examination reveals unilateral gynecomastia with a palpable mass beneath the areola. Mammography shows an irregular, spiculated mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Physiological gynecomastia
B. Breast carcinoma
C. Fat necrosis
D. Breast cyst
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient presents with unilateral, firm, painless, subareolar mass with irregular/spiculated margins on mammography in a male. While gynecomastia can occur in chronic liver disease (due to altered estrogen metabolism), physiological gynecomastia t...
Question 5
A 38-year-old female, who underwent lumpectomy and axillary lymph node dissection for invasive ductal carcinoma 2 years ago, now presents with persistent right upper limb swelling, heaviness, and discomfort. Her surgical history also includes adjuvant radiation therapy to the breast and axilla. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
B. Recurrence of breast cancer in the axilla
C. Lymphedema
D. Brachial plexopathy
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient's history of lumpectomy with axillary lymph node dissection (ALND) and adjuvant radiation therapy are significant risk factors for the development of lymphedema. Lymphedema is chronic swelling, heaviness, and discomfort in the arm and han...