Full Length Mock Test
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UPSC CMS General Medicine - Endocrinology & Metabolism
Attempt UPSC CMS General Medicine - Endocrinology & Metabolism under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.
Duration
15 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+4.00 / -1.00
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.
📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS General Medicine - Endocrinology & Metabolism
Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.
Question 1
A 45-year-old male presents with chronic fatigue, muscle weakness, and progressively darkening skin. Laboratory investigations reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and non-gap metabolic acidosis. His plasma ACTH level is markedly elevated, while serum cortisol is low. A rapid ACTH stimulation test shows a subnormal cortisol response. Which of the following statements about this patient's condition is/are CORRECT?
1. His primary pathology involves the anterior pituitary gland.
2. He is at increased risk of adrenal crisis during periods of stress.
3. Fludrocortisone is an essential component of his long-term management.
4. Skin hyperpigmentation is due to increased melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) activity from ACTH precursor peptides.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This patient presents with classic signs and symptoms of primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease), characterized by fatigue, weakness, hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and non-gap metabolic acidosis. The laboratory findings of...
Question 2
A 38-year-old female presents with a 6-month history of amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and headaches. MRI of the brain reveals a 1.2 cm pituitary adenoma. Her serum prolactin level is 350 ng/mL (normal <20 ng/mL). Visual field testing shows bitemporal hemianopsia. Which of the following statements regarding the management of this patient is INCORRECT?
A. First-line treatment involves dopamine agonists such as cabergoline or bromocriptine.
B. Surgical resection is generally reserved for patients intolerant to dopamine agonists or those with resistance.
C. Pregnancy in a patient on dopamine agonists usually necessitates immediate discontinuation due to teratogenicity.
D. Periodic monitoring of prolactin levels and tumor size is crucial, even with medical management.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This patient has a macroprolactinoma with mass effect (headaches, bitemporal hemianopsia) and hyperprolactinemia symptoms (amenorrhea, galactorrhea).
A. Correct: Dopamine agonists (e.g., cabergoline, bromocriptine) are the first-line treatment for pr...
Question 3
A 55-year-old male with a history of recurrent nephrolithiasis and peptic ulcer disease presents with fatigue, constipation, and polyuria. Laboratory tests reveal serum calcium 12.5 mg/dL (normal 8.5-10.5 mg/dL), serum phosphate 2.0 mg/dL (normal 2.5-4.5 mg/dL), and intact PTH 120 pg/mL (normal 10-65 pg/mL). His serum creatinine is 1.4 mg/dL. Which of the following is the MOST likely underlying diagnosis?
A. Multiple Myeloma
B. Tertiary Hyperparathyroidism
C. Primary Hyperparathyroidism
D. Vitamin D Intoxication
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient presents with symptoms and lab findings classic for primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT). The 'stones, bones, groans, and psychiatric overtones' mnemonic is relevant here (recurrent nephrolithiasis, peptic ulcer disease, fatigue, constipati...
Question 4
A 60-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Physical examination reveals diffuse abdominal tenderness and guarding. Lab tests show amylase 1500 U/L (normal <100 U/L), lipase 2500 U/L (normal <160 U/L), and serum triglycerides 1800 mg/dL (normal <150 mg/dL). His plasma glucose is 350 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy for his hypertriglyceridemia?
A. Initiate high-dose statin therapy immediately.
B. Administer fibrate therapy (e.g., fenofibrate) intravenously.
C. Begin intravenous insulin infusion with dextrose and fluid resuscitation.
D. Perform urgent therapeutic plasma exchange.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This patient presents with acute pancreatitis likely triggered by severe hypertriglyceridemia (levels >1000 mg/dL are a common cause of pancreatitis). The acute management focuses on reducing triglyceride levels rapidly to prevent further pancreatic...
Question 5
A 30-year-old female presents with weight loss despite increased appetite, palpitations, heat intolerance, and irritability. On examination, she has fine tremors, lid lag, and a diffuse, non-tender goiter. Her thyroid function tests reveal TSH <0.01 mIU/L (normal 0.4-4.0 mIU/L) and free T4 >5.0 ng/dL (normal 0.8-1.8 ng/dL). Her TSH receptor antibody (TRAb) level is significantly elevated. Which of the following interventions is CONTRADICTED as initial treatment?
A. Propranolol for symptomatic relief.
B. Methimazole to reduce thyroid hormone synthesis.
C. Radioactive iodine (RAI) therapy.
D. Potassium iodide prior to definitive treatment in severe cases.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This patient has Graves' disease, an autoimmune cause of hyperthyroidism, as evidenced by clinical signs, suppressed TSH, elevated free T4, and elevated TRAb.
A. Propranolol for symptomatic relief: Beta-blockers like propranolol are crucial for immed...