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UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Maternal Medical Disorders & Obstetric Complications
Attempt UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Maternal Medical Disorders & Obstetric Complications under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.
Duration
15 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+4.00 / -1.00
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.
📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS Gynaecology & Obstetrics - Maternal Medical Disorders & Obstetric Complications
Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.
Question 1
A 32-year-old G2P1L1 presents at 34 weeks gestation with sudden onset severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and uterine tenderness. Fetal heart rate monitoring shows late decelerations and reduced variability. She has a history of chronic hypertension well-controlled on labetalol. Which of the following statements regarding her condition is INCORRECT?
A. Risk factors include advanced maternal age, multiparity, and previous abruptio placentae.
B. The definitive management involves immediate delivery, irrespective of gestational age, once diagnosis is confirmed.
C. Coagulopathy, particularly disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), is a common and severe complication.
D. Corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity should be administered prior to delivery if fetal distress is not imminent.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This clinical scenario describes placental abruption, a medical emergency. While corticosteroids are generally given for fetal lung maturity in preterm deliveries, in cases of severe placental abruption with significant maternal hemorrhage or fetal d...
Question 2
A 28-year-old primigravida at 30 weeks gestation, diagnosed with severe pre-eclampsia, presents with epigastric pain, nausea, and malaise. Her laboratory results show hemoglobin 9.5 g/dL, platelet count 80,000/µL, AST 180 U/L, ALT 150 U/L, and LDH 900 U/L. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in her management?
A. Initiate nifedipine for blood pressure control and continue close observation.
B. Administer magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and prepare for delivery.
C. Order a 24-hour urine collection for total protein to confirm the diagnosis of pre-eclampsia.
D. Perform a detailed ultrasound to assess fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient's symptoms (epigastric pain, nausea) coupled with laboratory findings (hemolysis indicated by low hemoglobin and high LDH, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count) are classic for HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes,...
Question 3
A 38-year-old P3L2 presents for antenatal care at 36 weeks. Her previous two deliveries were by Cesarean section for cephalopelvic disproportion. Current pregnancy ultrasound shows a single viable fetus in cephalic presentation, and the placenta is anterior, fundal, and appears to extend over the old Cesarean scar, with lacunar spaces and loss of retroplacental clear space. Color Doppler reveals increased vascularity with turbulent flow extending into the myometrium and serosa. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding her likely condition?
A. The gold standard for diagnosis is MRI, particularly for assessing depth of invasion.
B. The primary risk factor is a history of previous Cesarean sections with concomitant placenta previa.
C. Planned preterm delivery via Cesarean hysterectomy is often the safest management approach.
D. Attempting manual removal of the placenta at the time of delivery is the recommended initial step.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The clinical scenario strongly suggests placenta accreta spectrum (PAS), likely placenta percreta given the depth of invasion into the serosa. Manual removal of the placenta is strictly contraindicated in PAS as it can lead to massive, life-threateni...
Question 4
A 26-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation presents with persistent vomiting and weight loss of 5 kg since conception. On examination, she is dehydrated, hypotensive, and ketonuric. Serum electrolytes reveal hypokalemia. Which of the following therapeutic interventions is CONTRAINDICATED in the initial management of this patient with hyperemesis gravidarum?
A. Intravenous fluid resuscitation with normal saline.
B. Administration of pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) as a first-line antiemetic.
C. Prescription of oral metoclopramide for persistent nausea.
D. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) without prior trial of enteral feeding.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
This patient presents with severe hyperemesis gravidarum. TPN is a last resort and should only be considered after adequate trials of antiemetics, intravenous hydration, and attempts at enteral nutrition (e.g., small, frequent meals, nasogastric or n...
Question 5
Regarding the management of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM), which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
1. Fasting plasma glucose targets are generally stricter in pregnancy compared to non-pregnant states.
2. Oral hypoglycemic agents are contraindicated for GDM due to potential teratogenicity.
3. Fetal surveillance with serial ultrasounds and non-stress tests may be initiated in the third trimester for poorly controlled GDM.
4. Women with GDM should undergo a 75-gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 6-12 weeks postpartum to screen for persistent diabetes.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Statement 1 is correct: Fasting glucose targets for GDM are typically