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UPSC CMS PSM - Epidemiology of Communicable Diseases
Attempt UPSC CMS PSM - Epidemiology of Communicable Diseases under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.
Duration
15 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+4.00 / -1.00
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.
📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS PSM - Epidemiology of Communicable Diseases
Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.
Question 1
A 35-year-old male farmer presents to a rural health center with fever, severe headache, myalgia, and a maculopapular rash developing on day 4 of illness, sparing the palms and soles. He reports recent travel to a forested area where he was involved in clearing bushes. Physical examination reveals conjunctival suffusion and palpable lymph nodes. Laboratory findings include leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Rapid diagnostic tests for malaria and dengue are negative. Given the epidemiological context and clinical presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic investigation to confirm the suspected etiology?
A. PCR for Leptospira DNA in urine
B. IgM ELISA for Scrub Typhus
C. Blood culture for Salmonella typhi
D. Serology for Chikungunya virus
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The clinical presentation of fever, headache, myalgia, maculopapular rash (sparing palms/soles), conjunctival suffusion, lymphadenopathy, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia, combined with a history of exposure in a forested area, is highly suggestive o...
Question 2
In a hypothetical community of 50,000, a new screening test for a rare communicable disease with a prevalence of 1 in 1000 is introduced. The test has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 98%. If a random individual from this community tests positive, what is the positive predictive value (PPV) of this test in this specific population?
A. Approximately 4.5%
B. Approximately 95.0%
C. Approximately 2.3%
D. Approximately 98.0%
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
To calculate the PPV, we need to construct a 2x2 table. Prevalence = 1/1000 = 0.001. So, in 50,000 people, 50,000 * 0.001 = 50 people have the disease (True Positives + False Negatives). 49,950 people do not have the disease (False Positives + True N...
Question 3
A 2-year-old child from a marginalized community presents with a high fever, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots. Subsequently, a maculopapular rash appears on the face and spreads downwards. The child has no history of vaccination. In the context of the National Immunization Schedule (NIS) in India, what is the most appropriate immediate public health action required for this confirmed case?
A. Administration of Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine to all unvaccinated children in the immediate vicinity within 72 hours.
B. Isolation of the child and symptomatic treatment; no immediate public health action beyond contact tracing.
C. Initiation of a ring vaccination strategy for all children aged 9 months to 5 years in the affected village.
D. Distribution of Vitamin A supplementation to the affected child and all siblings.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The clinical presentation is classic for measles. According to the NIS guidelines for measles outbreak response, immediate public health action involves administering Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine to all unvaccinated or partially vaccinated children a...
Question 4
A 45-year-old migrant worker from a high-burden district presents with persistent cough for 3 weeks, low-grade fever, and significant weight loss. Sputum microscopy reveals Acid-Fast Bacilli (AFB) 3+. He is diagnosed with drug-sensitive pulmonary tuberculosis. As part of the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), which is now subsumed under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP), what is the most appropriate drug regimen for the initial intensive phase?
A. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol daily for 2 months.
B. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin daily for 2 months.
C. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Ethambutol daily for 3 months.
D. Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol daily for 2 months.
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
For new cases of drug-sensitive pulmonary tuberculosis, the NTEP (formerly RNTCP) guidelines recommend a 6-month regimen. The intensive phase (initial phase) consists of daily administration of four drugs: Isoniazid (H), Rifampicin (R), Pyrazinamide...
Question 5
During a communicable disease outbreak investigation, a public health team employs a specific study design to rapidly compare exposure histories between individuals who developed the disease and a sample of individuals from the same population who did not. This design aims to identify risk factors for the disease. Which epidemiological study design is being utilized?
A. Cohort study
B. Case-control study
C. Cross-sectional study
D. Ecological study
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The description perfectly matches a case-control study. In this design, individuals with the disease (cases) are identified, and a comparable group without the disease (controls) is selected. The past exposure histories of both groups are then compar...