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UPSC CMS Surgery - Breast Surgery

Attempt UPSC CMS Surgery - Breast Surgery under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.

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Real CBT Simulator Grid & Percentile
Duration
15 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+2.08 / -0.69
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.

📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS Surgery - Breast Surgery

Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.

Question 1

A 35-year-old female has inflammatory carcinoma of the left breast, with clinically palpable two left axillary lymph nodes and no clinically or radiologically detectable metastasis. Her TNM staging will be:

A.

T4 N2 M0

B.

T4b N2 M0

C.

T4d N1 M0

D.

T4d N2 M0

Textbook Explanation Highlight:
  OPTION-WISE EXPLANATION (a) T4 N2 M0 This is incorrect. T4 is correct for locally advanced disease, but it is not specific enough. Inflammatory carcinoma has a specific subtype T4d, not just T4. N2 indicates fixed/ma...
Question 2

A 30-year-old lady comes with a history of bloody discharge from her right nipple while taking a bath. On examination, there is a cystic swelling in the subareolar region. The clinical diagnosis would be:

A.

Duct ectasia

B.

Intraductal papilloma

C.

Fibrocystic disease

D.

Intraductal carcinoma

Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Clinical Diagnosis body { font-family: 'Segoe UI', Roboto, sans-serif; font-size: 17px; line-height: 1.8; padding: 20px; background-color: #fdfaf6; color: #000; } h1 { font-famil...
Question 3

Which is the most commonly used chemotherapy regimen in the adjuvant treatment following modified radical mastectomy in the estrogen receptor-negative 35-year-old female with breast cancer?

A.

Cyclophosphamide + 5-Fluorouracil

B.

Cyclophosphamide + Methotrexate + 5-Fluorouracil

C.

Cyclophosphamide + Adriamycin + 5-Fluorouracil

D.

Adriamycin + 5-Fluorouracil

Textbook Explanation Highlight:
  OPTION-WISE EXPLANATION (a) Cyclophosphamide + 5-Fluorouracil This is an incomplete regimen and less effective compared to combination regimens including anthracyclines. It lacks a key component (Adriamycin), which improve...
Question 4

A 43 year old woman presented with serous discharge from a single duct of the nipple of her right breast which was sent for evaluation. She is unlikely to be suffering from

A. Fibrocystic disease
B. Intraductal Papilloma
C. Duct Ectasia
D. Carcinoma
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
🎯 Core Clinical Snapshot Correct Option: B: Intraductal Papilloma Key Takeaway: While intraductal papilloma is a common cause of nipple discharge, it typically presents with bloody or serosanguineous discharge, not...
Question 5

Breast imaging reporting and data system (BI-RADS): Final assessment categorized a 45-year-old female to have Category 5 disease. What does the report signify?

A.

Incomplete assessment

B.

Negative- Annual screening can be recommended.

C.

Probably benign (≤2% malignant)

D.

Highly suggestive of malignancy (≥95% malignant)

Textbook Explanation Highlight:
Breast Imaging Reporting and Database System (BI-RADS) Category 0: Incomplete Assessment Probability of Malignancy: Not applicable. Follow-up: Additional imaging evaluation or prior mammograms needed for compa...
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