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UPSC CMS Surgery - Urology & Genitourinary Surgery
Attempt UPSC CMS Surgery - Urology & Genitourinary Surgery under real exam conditions. Features timed computer-based test interface, textbook explanations, and detailed subject rank analytics.
Duration
15 Mins
Countdown timer with review palette.
Marking Scheme
+4.00 / -1.00
Exact negative marking as per official exam rules.
Textbook Citations
Harrison & Bailey
Standard medical textbook solution references.
Target Exam
UPSC CMS
Official paper pattern & syllabus coverage.
📝 Sample Question Preview from UPSC CMS Surgery - Urology & Genitourinary Surgery
Below is a preview of sample questions included in this mock test. Launch the live simulator to attempt the complete test.
Question 1
A 68-year-old male presents with acute onset, severe left flank pain radiating to the groin, associated with nausea, vomiting, and microscopic hematuria. His medical history includes hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. On examination, he is afebrile, and his vitals are stable. A plain KUB radiograph shows a 5 mm radiopaque calculus in the left lower ureter. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy?
A. Immediate extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL)
B. Alpha-blocker therapy with tamsulosin and watchful waiting
C. Ureteroscopic lithotripsy with stent placement
D. Percutaneous nephrostomy for urinary diversion
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of acute ureteral obstruction due to a calculus. For a 5 mm ureteral stone, especially in the distal ureter, conservative management with alpha-blockers (like tamsulosin) and watchful waiting is th...
Question 2
A 45-year-old male with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) in childhood presents with fatigue, nocturia, and generalized malaise. His creatinine is 2.5 mg/dL (baseline 1.0 mg/dL), and he has proteinuria. A renal ultrasound reveals bilateral small, scarred kidneys with cortical thinning. What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology leading to his current renal deterioration?
A. Hypertensive nephropathy due to poorly controlled blood pressure
B. Glomerulonephritis secondary to chronic UTIs
C. Reflux nephropathy with progressive chronic kidney disease
D. Diabetic nephropathy as an undiagnosed comorbidity
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The patient's history of recurrent UTIs and VUR in childhood, combined with bilateral small, scarred kidneys and elevated creatinine, strongly points towards reflux nephropathy. VUR causes retrograde flow of urine from the bladder to the kidneys, lea...
Question 3
A 72-year-old male presents with painless gross hematuria for two months. He is a chronic smoker. Cystoscopy reveals a papillary tumor in the bladder. Biopsy confirms high-grade urothelial carcinoma. Staging investigations show no distant metastases. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management for this patient?
A. Transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT) with adjuvant intravesical BCG
B. Radical cystectomy with urinary diversion
C. Partial cystectomy with neoadjuvant chemotherapy
D. External beam radiation therapy to the bladder
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
For high-grade urothelial carcinoma of the bladder without distant metastases, radical cystectomy with urinary diversion is the standard of care. TURBT with adjuvant intravesical BCG is appropriate for high-grade non-muscle invasive bladder cancer (N...
Question 4
A 3-year-old male is brought to the clinic for a routine check-up. On examination, his right testis is not palpable in the scrotum. The left testis is normally descended. Ultrasound confirms an undescended right testis in the inguinal canal. What is the optimal timing for surgical correction (orchidopexy) in this child?
A. Immediately, as soon as the diagnosis is made
B. Before 6 months of age
C. Between 6 and 18 months of age
D. After 5 years of age to allow for spontaneous descent
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The optimal timing for orchidopexy for cryptorchidism is between 6 and 18 months of age. This allows for potential spontaneous descent in the first few months of life while minimizing the risk of future complications such as infertility and testicula...
Question 5
A 28-year-old male presents with sudden onset excruciating pain and swelling in his left scrotum. He denies any recent trauma or fever. On examination, the left testis is high-riding, horizontally oriented, and exquisitely tender. The cremasteric reflex is absent on the left. Urinalysis is normal. What is the most critical next step in management?
A. Administer antibiotics and anti-inflammatory medication
B. Perform a Doppler ultrasound of the scrotum
C. Emergent surgical exploration of the scrotum
D. Apply ice packs and observe for symptom improvement
Textbook Explanation Highlight:
The clinical presentation (sudden onset pain, high-riding testis, horizontal lie, absent cremasteric reflex, exquisite tenderness) is classic for testicular torsion. This is a surgical emergency, and immediate surgical exploration is paramount to pre...